At the the weblog of t. michael w. halcomb, the questions,
In the last couple of decades, D. M. Bergeron has attempted to argue that “King James”, the impetus for the “King James Bible” translation had homosexual tendencies. He has published two books on this subject: Royal Family, Royal Lovers: King James of England and Scotland (1991) and : King James & Letters of Homoerotic Desire (1999).
This raises a number of questions for me, two being: 1) “If King James really was gay, how might this challenge the fundamentalist, King-James-Onlyists view of their Bible?” and 2) “How might this force those same people to think about homosexuality?”
Furthermore, do you think they would be more willing (acting as if the premise were true) to give up a KJV-Only view first or their views towards homosexuality? Or, would it not make a difference at all if this were true?
(By the way, D. Capps has written an article that seems to aptly refute the accuastions about King James! (“The Homosexual Tendencies of King James:
Should this Matter to Bible Readers Today?” in Pastoral Psychology)
Does it really matter the life of the person who paid for the translation? If so, to what extent? As many of you know, I am no longer a KJVO, but I still have a lot of ‘friends’ who still are. KJVO’ers will tell you that the extent of inspiration is only to the words of the 66 books, denying, against all logic, the application of inspiration to the Deuterocanon, the margin notes, and even the various prefaces (one of which instructs the readers to use other translations).