I can offer nothing here, but I sure would like some help.
In our recent discussion on hell, the point came up – and it is a very valid point, very valid – in at least one example, those who take the mark of the beast are consigned to burn forever and ever:
The smoke of their torment will rise forever and ever, and they will have no relief day or night, for they have worshiped the beast and his statue and have accepted the mark of his name.” (Rev 14:11 NLT)
In the Greek:
καὶ ὁ καπνὸς τοῦ βασανισμοῦ αὐτῶν εἰς αἰῶνας αἰώνων ἀναβαίνει, καὶ οὐκ ἔχουσιν ἀνάπαυσιν ἡμέρας καὶ νυκτὸς οἱ προσκυνοῦντες τὸ θηρίον καὶ τὴν εἰκόνα αὐτοῦ καὶ εἴ τις λαμβάνει τὸ χάραγμα τοῦ ὀνόματος αὐτοῦ. (Rev 14:11 BGT)
One of the problems that I see, first, is that this phrase, αἰῶνας αἰώνων, is found only once in the Greek Bible (OT/NT including the Deuterocanon and pseudepigraphical materials – unless I have missed something. Nor is it found in the Apostolic Fathers.)
Other New Testament examples of similar wording:
NLT Ephesians 3:21 Glory to him in the church and in Christ Jesus through all generations forever and ever! Amen.
BGT Ephesians 3:21 αὐτῷ ἡ δόξα ἐν τῇ ἐκκλησίᾳ καὶ ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ εἰς πάσας τὰς γενεὰς τοῦ αἰῶνος τῶν αἰώνων, ἀμήν.
NLT Philippians 4:20 Now all glory to God our Father forever and ever! Amen.
BGT Philippians 4:20 τῷ δὲ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ ἡμῶν ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας τῶν αἰώνων, ἀμήν.
The phrase found in Philippians, αἰῶνας τῶν αἰώνων, is that which is found throughout Revelation (and the New Testament not to mention the Deuterocanon). There is an important difference, especially given that we believe that one author wrote Revelation. If one author wrote this book, then it would mean something that his construction here is different than his other uses.
Literally, αἰῶνας αἰώνων is translation as ages of ages while αἰῶνας τῶν αἰώνων is translated as ages of the ages.
Now what? There is point of comparison, and it is seen that the author of Revelation uses the latter, proper construction, throughout all of Revelation. So, is this just a quirk of John or does it actually mean something? If we truly believe that God inspired every word, then we have to face the very real fact that this portion of Scripture is different for a reason.
As a post script, I note that only in the final hours of the late great planet, is the mark of the beast available, and it is only those who take it who are consigned to torment.