Recently, there was a bit of a lively discussion when I suggested that some people take the KJVO position because it harkens back to the days of British world dominance. While not my intention, this article seems to have really irritated people. I found that the reasons for the irritation were odd since they had nothing to do with the questions asked in the article itself. People argued that:
- It had no well-known antecedent
- It attacked the KJV and those who use it
- It supported the Critical Text position
- It implied that anyone who uses the KJV does so because it was the Bible of imperial Britain
There is nothing in the bible to demand an adherence to one particular translation. If you think so, show me.