The premise is this:
While ancient Hebrew underwent linguistic change, as do languages in general, the biblical texts seem not to reflect this chronology in a way that makes any kind of linguistic dating of the texts possible – in contrast to the consensus prevailing among Hebrew linguists until about a decade ago.
Essay based on Linguistic Dating of biblical Texts. Volume 1: An Introduction to Approaches and Problems. Volume 2: A Survey of Scholarship, a New Synthesis and a Comprehensive Bibliography. BibleWorld. London: Equinox Publishing, 2008.
The essay is here:
So, what do you think? If they are correct, and the Hebrew of the OT shows no changes over a supposedly millennium, does that harm the ‘authorship’ of the texts, especially that of the Torah? (Hardly, but I don’t want to answer for you.)