Thought this might be a good way to break the ice. What does the final two acts of sin mean?
Ἢ οὐκ οἴδατε ὅτι ἄδικοι θεοῦ βασιλείαν οὐ κληρονομήσουσιν; μὴ πλανᾶσθε· οὔτε πόρνοι οὔτε εἰδωλολάτραι οὔτε μοιχοὶ οὔτε μαλακοὶ οὔτε ἀρσενοκοῖται
Go on… And, make sure you use relevant literature to define those words.
Actually, I’d like to be educated on the subject. Not just 1 Cor 6:9, but 1 Cor 6:2….”Or do you not know that the Lord’s people will judge the world?” I thought God was the judge, not “people”. I write this off as another example of Paul being a “loose cannon”, or maybe “loose canon”. Add it to women not being able to understand anything besides listening to their husband, slaves being nice to their masters, and celibacy. Paul should have continued persecuting Christians, instead of becoming one. He was at least effective at his previous job.
I wrote this on another post.
Gary, I don’t think the Calvinists have treated Paul right and as such, we have inherited a Paul that not even he would have recognized. He actually condemned the view of women where they could only talk to their husbands. Celibacy was a personal choice, something he new he wouldn’t recommend for others. Further, the slaves being nice to their masters is not so much a command as it was a way to convert their masters and not have themselves murdered.
Don’t cast Paul out just yet.
Joel, interested more in your take, as my level of Greek is barely enough to fumble through the NT. And the more scholars I read and study on the matter, the more it just all seems like a big question mark, and so impossible to extricate from culture and context — i.e., how we can even do justice to the discourse, when for most of civilization history, culture has been ensconced in misogyny and patriarchy, to see truly with open eyes what really is.