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  1. Because it is not against the law, at least according to later rabbinic teachings. 😉 Deut 23 only applied to men.

    Regarding the canon, I think perhaps one of the most convincing arguments is that there was an historical memory that David had a Moabite predecessor and this fact had to be dealt with. Thus we have a story which places it in the best light possible.

    The fact that Ruth accepts YHWH as her god is crucial here as well. (I do not call it conversion since I think that term is problematic and anachronistic.) The Law can be understood then as NOT applying to those who agree to essentially become Israelites themselves. “Your people will be my people.” Thus Ruth is no longer a Moabite….

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    1. Wish I would have had that last paragraph last night. Would have made the conversation interesting. And course, it adds to the relevancy for today.

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    2. Wish I would have had that last paragraph last night. Would have made the conversation interesting. And course, it adds to the relevancy for today.

      Reply

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