10 Comments

  1. irishanglican

    Joel,

    What “diaspora” do think Peter wrote to, the literal Jews, or is it spiritualized? i.e. Gentles, who came thru the and or with the Jewish diaspora? Or is it just Gentile converts? Just wondered? This would fall under the OT/NT inpertretation models, etc.

    Fr. Robert

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  2. Fr. Robert,

    I believe that Peter wrote to those that were spiritually Jews. I used that word with 1st Peter 1.1 in mind. (to the strangers scattered). I say this because in 1st Peter 2.10, we read, “Once you were no people (Gentiles) but now you are God’s people (Jews); once you had not received mercy but now you have received mercy.”

    I do not believe that his letter was intended to Jews by blood only.

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  3. irishanglican

    Joel,

    I would agree that these are Christian’s now “chosen” etc. They are perhaps both Gentiles who were Jewish proselytes, but have now become Christian converts. This seems the best interpretative idea to me.

    Fr. Robert

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  4. I agree. I might be in left field here, but when I read the prophecies in the Old Testament, I usually interpret Jerusalem to be the Church and David to be Christ. I understand that that particular method is not the preferred among Evangelicals, but I am not one who favors the ‘rapture theology’ promoted by the Left Behind series.

    Everything points to Christ and His Church

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  5. irishanglican

    Indeed the Church is the New Israel of God! (Gal.6:15-16) If we miss this hermeneutic, we will miss the biblical overview. We agree here.

    Fr.R.

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