I am a novice at bible translation, but even I know that a ‘literal translation’ is not exactly literal. I wonder if the ESV uses all the ‘O’s’ in the text? Or the ‘the’s’ as in ‘the God, the Christ’ when it is rarely translated in our English bibles.
Let me clear this up – I have little to no problem with John Piper or the ESV (not my preferred translation), just the method of discourse that he is using (as late as 16 August 2009) in promoting the ESV.
And from this post:
If “essentially literal” means anything it means keeping as much as possible the structure and wording of the original. Which leads me to ask the question why not an interlinear. Contrast a verse pair I choose to have as few complexities as possible:
And came out the Pharisees and they began to argue with him, seeking from him a sign from heaven, trying him. And having sighed deeply in the spirit of him he says, why does seek this generation a sign? Truly I say to you, in no way will be given to this generation a sign. (Mark 8:11-12 Brown and Comfort).
11 The Pharisees came and began to argue with him, seeking from him a sign from heaven to test him. 12 And he sighed deeply in his spirit and said, “Why does this generation seek a sign? Truly, I say to you, no sign will be given to this generation.” (Mark 8:11-12 ESV)
And, from here:
- Hebrew/Greek: 612,483
- NIV: 726,133
- TNIV: 728,393
- NLT: 741,276
- ESV: 757,439
- NASB: 782,815
Oh my, I wonder what Piper will do with that?